KING FAHD UNIVERSITY OF PETROLEUM AND MINERALS
CHEMISTRY DEPARTMENT
CHEM 102-082
FINAL EXAM
TEST CODE NUMBER 001

STUDENT NUMBER:    _____________________________
NAME :                          _____________________________
SECTION NUMBER:    _____________________________
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your student number, name, and section number on the EXAM COVER page.
2.
Write your student number, section number, and your name on your EXAM ANSWER FORM.
3.
Bubble in pencil your student number and your section number on the EXAM ANSWER FORM.
4.
Bubble in pencil on your EXAM ANSWER FORM the correct answer to each of the questions. .
You must not give more than ONE answer per question.
5.
At the end of the exam return the EXAM ANSWER FORM to the proctor.
6.
The exam contains 40 multiple choice questions and the time allowed is 160 min (2 hrs and 40 min). Time will be announced after 80 minutes and again 10 minutes before the end of the exam.
Important constants
Gas Constant (R)
= 0.0821
= 8.31
= 8.31 x 107
L.atm/(mol.K)
J/(mol.K)
g.cm2/(sec2.mol.K)
Planck’s Constant (h)
= 6.626 x 10-34
= 6.626 x 10-34
J.sec/particle kg.m2/(sec.particle)
Velocity of light (c)
= 2.998 x 108
m/sec
Avogadro’s number (N)
= 6.022 x 1023
particles/mole
Bohr’s Constant (RH)
= 2.179 x 10-18
J/particle
Faraday (F)
= 96485
Coulombs
Specific heat of H2O
= 4.18
J/(g.oC)




















1.
The order of a reaction having a rate constant 1.6 × 10–3 s–1 is
A.
first
B.
second
C.
third
D.
zeroth
E.
forth


2.
The reaction 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 has the following mechanism:
          H2O2 + I– → H2O + IO–
              H2O2 + IO– → H2O + O2 + I–
    The catalyst in the reaction is:
A.
H2O
B.
I–
C.
H2O2
D.
IO–
E.
O2


3.
The rate constant for a reaction at 305.0 K is two times the rate constant at 295.0 K. The activation energy of the reaction is
A.
36.2 kJ mol–1
B.
21.7 kJ mol–1
C.
72.9 kJ mol–1
D.
51.8 kJ mol–1
E.
12.1 kJ mol–1


4.
K for the reaction

is 2.24 × 1022 at 1273 ºC. Kp for the reaction at the same temperature is
A.
7.16 × 10-18
B.
1.76 × 1020
C.
5.12 × 10-15
D.
3.12 × 1019
E.
1.26 × 10-10


5.
2.50 mole of NOCl was heated in a 1.50 L vessel at 400°C.At equilibrium it was found that 28.0% of the NOCl had dissociated. The equilibrium constant, Kc of the reaction
is
A.
0.0349
B.
3.49 × 102
C.
3.49 × 10-4
D.
3.49
E.
3.49 × 10-7


6.
The equilibrium position of the reaction

can be shifted in the forward direction by
A.
Removing SO2
B.
Adding Cl2
C.
Removing Cl2
D.
Removing SO2 and Cl2
E.
Adding SO2Cl2


7.
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to an acid?
A.
Concentrated acids are always strong acids.
B.
Weaker acids have smaller Ka values.
C.
An acid and its conjugate base have always the same strength.
D.
Weaker acids have greater H+ concentration.
E.
Percent ionization of a weak acid decreases by dilution.


8.
How many moles of benzoic acid, a monoprotic acid with Ka = 6.4 × 10–5, must be dissolved in 500. mL of H2O to produce a solution with pH = 2.50?
A.
1.6 × 10–1
B.
2.0 × 10–2
C.
7.8 × 10–2
D.
0.50
E.
3.2 × 10–3


9.
What is the pH of a 2.00 liter solution containing 0.300 mole of CH3COOH (Ka = 1.6 × 10-5) and 0.200 mole of HCl?
A.
0.60
B.
1.30
C.
2.30
D.
1.00
E.
3.20


10.
The Ksp of PbSO4(s) is 1.3 × 10–8. Calculate the solubility (in mol/L) of PbSO4(s) in a 0.0010 M solution of Na2SO4.
A.
1.3 × 10–11 M
B.
4.5 × 10–6 M
C.
1.3 × 10–5 M
D.
1.3 × 10–8 M
E.
1.4 × 10–4 M


11.
In a titration experiment, 12.5 mL of 0.500 M H2SO4 neutralized 50.0 mL of NaOH. The concentration of the NaOH solution is
A.
0.500 M
B.
0.250 M
C.
0.125 M
D.
0.0250 M
E.
0.00500 M


12.
A buffer solution of pH 5.1 can be prepared by mixing CH3COOH (Ka = 1.6 × 10-5) and CH3COONa in the proportion
A.
500 mL of 0.80 M CH3COOH + 500 mL 0.80 M CH3COONa
B.
500 mL of 0.80 M CH3COOH + 500 mL 0.40 M CH3COONa
C.
500 mL of 0.40 M CH3COOH + 500 mL 0.80 M CH3COONa
D.
50 mL of 0.80 M CH3COOH + 25 mL of 0.04 M CH3COONa
E.
50 mL of 0.80 M CH3COOH + 50 mL of 0.04 M CH3COONa


13.
The standard free energies of formation (ΔGf°) of PCl3(g) and PCl5(g) are –286 and –325 kJ/mol, respectively. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 25°C equals
A.
2.7 × 10–3
B.
1.7 × 10–8
C.
8.1 × 10–5
D.
1.5 × 10–7
E.
2.5 × 10–9


14.
Which one of the following processes has a negative entropy change?
A.
2 KClO4(s) → 2 KClO3(s) + O2(g)
B.
H2O(g) → H2O(l)
C.
2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) → 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
D.
N2(g) → 2 N(g)
E.
H2O(s) → H2O(l)


15.
Substance S has a heat of vaporization of 55.4 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point(423 °C). For the process S(l) → S(g) at 1 atm and 423 °C calculate the value of ΔSsurr
A.
0
B.
79.6 J/K⋅mol
C.
103 J/K⋅mol
D.
-79.6 J/K⋅mol
E.
-103 J/K⋅mol


16.
A certain electrochemical cell has for its cell reaction:

         Zn(s) + HgO(s)→ ZnO(s) + Hg(l)

Which one of the following is the half-reaction occurring at the anode?
A.
HgO + 2e- → Hg + O2-
B.
Zn2+ + 2e- → Zn
C.
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-
D.
ZnO + 2e- → Zn
E.
Zn + 2e- → Zn2-


17.
Which one of the following reagents is capable of transforming Cu(s) to Cu2+(1 M)?
A.
I- (1 M)
B.
Ni(s)
C.
Ag+(1 M)
D.
Al3+(1 M)
E.
H+(1 M)


18.
For the galvanic cell
Ni(s) | Ni2+(1 M) || H+(1 M) | H2(1 atm) | Pt(s),

which one of the following changes will cause a decrease in the cell voltage?
A.
Increase the pressure of H2 to 2.0 atm .
B.
Decrease the mass of the nickel electrode.
C.
Lower the pH of the cell electrolyte.
D.
Decrease the concentration of Ni2+ ion.
E.
Decrease the mass of the platinum electrode.


19.
Carbon-11 is a radioactive isotope of carbon. Its half-life is 20.3 minutes. What fraction of the initial number of carbon-11 atoms in a sample will remain after 81 minutes?
A.
1/16
B.
1/4
C.
1/2
D.
1/32
E.
1/8


20.
The energy released when one U-238 atom decays to Th-234 is _____ J. The atomic masses are: U-238, 238.0508; Th-234, 234.0436 amu; He-4, 4.0026 amu.
A.
4.12 × 10–11
B.
6.87 × 10–13
C.
3.12 × 10–9
D.
7.12 × 10–15
E.
1.21 × 10–21


21.
As a result of beta decay, the product nucleus is
A.
one atomic number lower than the original element.
B.
two atomic numbers higher than the original element.
C.
one atomic number higher than the original element.
D.
two atomic numbers lower than the original element.
E.
four atomic numbers lower than the original element.


22.
What reason is given for the stability of CC, NN, and OO bonds, compared to the instability of SiSi, PP, and SS bonds?
A.
Their metallic character varies greatly.
B.
Large differences in their ionization energies.
C.
Large differences in their electronegativities.
D.
Large differences in their abilities to form strong pi bonds.
E.
The difference in the atomic radii of the three elements


23.
Why is nitrogen not able to form molecules with five covalent bonds?
A.
Because nitrogen can only form a trigonal bipyramidal shape.
B.
Because nitrogen requires high ionization energy to produce five covalent bonds.
C.
Because nitrogen only exists as N2 gas at room temperature.
D.
Because of nitrogen's small size and lack of available d-orbitals for electrons.
E.
Because nitrogen only produces complex compounds.


24.
Which oxide of a Group 2A element is not highly ionic?
A.
Be
B.
Mg
C.
Ca
D.
Sr
E.
Ba


25.
In the coordination compound [Cr(NH3)(en)2Cl]Br2, the coordination number (C.N.) and oxidation number (O.N.) of the metal atom are, respectively, (given that en = ethylenediamine)
A.
C.N. = 6; O.N. = +4.
B.
C.N. = 6; O.N. = +3.
C.
C.N. = 5; O.N. = +2.
D.
C.N. = 4; O.N. = +2.
E.
C.N. = 4; O.N. = +3.


26.
The best name for [Co(en)2Br2]Br is
A.
cobalt(III)bis(ethylenediamine) bromide.
B.
dibromobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) bromide.
C.
dibromidedi(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) bromide.
D.
dibromodiethylenediaaminecobalt(III) bromide.
E.
tribromobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III).


27.
Which one of the following square planar complex ions can have cis-trans isomers?
A.
[Pt(NH3)4]2+
B.
[Ni(NH3)4]2+
C.
[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
D.
[Pt(NH3)Cl3]-
E.
[Ni(NH3)3Cl]+


28.
Consider the reaction
              2A + B → 2C
What is the ratio of the initial rate of the appearance of C to the initial rate of disappearance of B?
A.
1:1
B.
2:1
C.
1:2
D.
2:3
E.
3:2


29.
In the weak field ligand K4[Fe(CN)6] complex, how many 3d electrons does the iron atom have?
A.
3
B.
4
C.
5
D.
6
E.
7


30.
The high spin complex ion [Co(NH3)6]2+ is,
A.
paramagnetic, with 1 unpaired electron.
B.
paramagnetic, with 3 unpaired electrons.
C.
paramagnetic, with 4 unpaired electrons.
D.
paramagnetic, with 5 unpaired electrons.
E.
diamagnetic.


31.
Which one of the following coordination compounds will form a precipitate when treated with an aqueous solution of AgNO3?
A.
[Cr(NH3)3Cl3]
B.
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
C.
[Cr(NH3)Cl]SO4
D.
Na3[Cr(CN)6]
E.
Na3[CrCl6]


32.
Which of the following are structural isomers?
    I. coordination isomers
    II. linkage isomers
    III. geometric isomers
    IV. optical isomers
A.
I and II
B.
I and III
C.
I and IV
D.
II and III
E.
III and IV


33.
An ester can be produced by the reaction of
A.
a carboxylic acid and sodium hydroxide
B.
a carboxylic acid and an alcohol
C.
a carboxylic acid and an amine
D.
an aldehyde and an alcohol
E.
two types of alcohol


34.
The bromo-alkene compound C3H5Br will have _____ possible isomers.
A.
4
B.
5
C.
3
D.
2
E.
1


35.
How many carbon atoms are in the 2,3-dimethylpentane molecule?
A.
4
B.
5
C.
6
D.
7
E.
10


36.
Chromium is plated from an aqueous solution of Cr2O72- . If oxidation of H2O occurs simultaneously at the anode, how many moles of oxygen gas will evolve at the anode for every 1.00 × 102 grams of Cr(s) deposited at the cathode?
A.
2.88 mole
B.
0.48 mole
C.
11.5 mole
D.
7.7 mole
E.
1.44 mole


37.
The monomer used to prepare polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is
A.
CH2=CH2
B.
CH3CH2Cl
C.
CH2=CCl2
D.
CH2=CHCl
E.
CF2=CF2


38.
Identify all the functional groups present in the following organic compound.
1) ketone, 2) aldehyde, 3) acid, 4) alcohol, 5) ester, 6) amine
A.
2,5
B.
2,3
C.
1,2
D.
1,2,6
E.
3,4


39.
The hydrocarbon C4H6 can be an/a
    I. alkene
   II. alkyne
  III. cycloalkene
  IV alkane
A.
I and IV
B.
II
C.
III
D.
I and II
E.
I, II and III


40.
The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is,
             
A.
1-hexyne
B.
2-ethynyl butane
C.
2-ethyl-3-butyne
D.
3-methyl-1-pentyne
E.
3-methyl-4-pentyne


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